The old questions are still debated. The problems remain unsolved after millenia: there is no consensus among the competent. But what does interminable debate and lack of consensus show? That philosophical problems are genuine but insoluble or that they are not genuine because insoluble? Or something else?
Our metaphilosophical problem may be cast in the mold of an antilogism:
1. All genuine problems are soluble.
2. No problem of philosophy is soluble.
3. Some problems of philosophy are genuine.
Each limb of this aporetic triad lays serious claim to our acceptance. (1) will strike many as self-evident, especially if soluble means 'soluble eventually' or perhaps 'soluble in principle.' (2) is a good induction based on two and one half millenia of philosophical experience. Or can you point to a central or core problem that has been solved to the satisfaction of all able practioners? Give me an example if you think you have one, and I will blow it clean out of the water. (3) certainly seems to be true, does it not? The main problems of philosophy when carefully and rigorously formulated are as genuine as any problem. And yet the triad's limbs cannot all be true. The first two limbs, taken together, entail the negation of the third. So one of them must be rejected.
Think about this metaproblem. Is it not genuine and important?
For every antilogism there are three corresponding syllogisms, and so our antilogism gives rise to the following three syllogistic arguments:
1. All genuine problems are soluble.
2. No problem of philosophy is soluble.
—–
~3. No problem of philosophy is genuine.
1. All genuine problems are soluble.
3. Some problems of philosophy are genuine.
—–
~2. Some problems of philosophy are soluble.
2. No problem of philosophy is soluble.
3. Some problems of philosophy are genuine.
—–
~1. Some genuine problems are not soluble.
Each of these syllogisms is valid. But only one can be sound. Which one? Is there any rational way to decide? The first syllogism encapsulates the view of the logical positivist Moritz Schlick as expressed in his "The Turning Point in Philosophy." His thesis is that the problems of philosophy are pseudo-problems. But if so, then the metaproblem we have been discussing, which of course is a philosophical problem, is a also a pseudo-problem. But if it is a pseudo-problem, then it has no solution. But it does have a solution for Schlick, one that consists in denying (3). So the Schlick solution is incoherent. On the one hand, he maintains that the problems of philosophy are pseudo-problems. On the other hand, he thinks that the metaproblem of whether philosophical problems are pseudoproblems has a solution. Thus his position leads to a contradiction.
Many will plump for the second syllogism. They will be forgiven for so plumping. They are the optimists who fancy that in the fullness of time solutions will be upon us.
I put my money on the third syllogism. I reject (1), thereby maintaining that some genuine problems are insoluble. Indeed, I want to go further. I want to maintain that all genuine philosophical problems are insoluble. I consider the above metaphilosophical problem to be an example of a genuine but insoluble problem. So I am not claiming that my rejection of (1) solves the metaphilosophical problem. If I made that claim then I would be contradicting myself. I would be claiming that philosophical problems are insoluble but that the metaproblem (which is a philosophical problem) is soluble. So what am I saying?
Perhaps what I am saying is that I have no compelling reason to prefer the third syllogism to the other two, but that my preferring of the third is rationally acceptable, rationally supportable, and may well lay bare the truth of the matter.
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