The question is moot, according to to Anthony G. Flood. The question of the real presence of Christ in the Eucharist cannot arise for one who understands scripture.
“This do in remembrance of Me,” Jesus commanded His disciples at His last Passover, two days before the official Passover preparation that was concurrent with His passion. (He probably elected to follow Moses’ calendar.)
The antecedent of “this” is the Passover, given by God to the Israelites in Egypt and performed every year since until the destruction of the Second Temple in 70 A.D. Henceforth, as often as His disciples would perform that ceremony, that is, annually, they were to contemplate not their ancestors’ miraculous escape from bondage, but Him, whose body, whose very Life, would soon be given for them.
Most Christians, from Roman Catholics to Plymouth Brethren, believe that Christ instituted an “ordinance” or “sacrament” at His last Passover. The evidence for that belief, however, lies in tradition, not Scripture.
Comments? I myself am insufficiently equipped to weigh in on this topic.
Addendum (6/5). Tony Flood asked me why I linked to his article if I am "insufficiently equipped" to comment upon it. The main reason is that, while I am not, others may be. I am not a Biblical scholar. In any case, my interest is in the issues and problems the real presence raises. My thinking is problem-oriented and I have an aversion to interminable and inconclusive exegetical-historical disputes. I linked to Flood's article because it raises the logically prior question whether the presence of Christ in the Eucharistic elements is to be understood literally or metaphorically. If literal, then we can proceed to examine the various theories of real presence as found in Aquinas, Scotus, Suarez, Descartes and contemporaries.
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