So if grammar is 'racist,' then so is logic.
What is the criterion whereby a subject or activity is deemed 'racist' by leftists? It appears to be this: Whatever blacks and other 'people of color' are poor at is 'racist.'
And what is at the back of that criterion? It appears to be the assumption that we are all inherently equal, both as individuals and as groups, in all respects, and not just in respect of political rights. Now we all believe in equality of rights, such as the rights to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness; those among us with experience of life and good sense, however, know that there are all sorts of empirically measurable respects in which individuals and groups are not equal. To take one of many examples, Asian students are superior to black students in point of knowledge of, and aptitude for, mathematics.
Do I need to belabor this point among my astute readers? (Full disclosure: I am not now, and never have been Asian, and it is biologically impossible that I should ever become Asian.)
But if you foolishly believe that we are all inherently equal in every respect, with the same abilities and interests, then you may be tempted to embrace the following unsound argument:
A. We are all inherently equal in every respect. But:
B. This equality does not manifest itself as equality of outcome or result. Therefore:
C. There has to be a factor that prevents equality of outcome or result. And:
D. That factor is racism, both individual and 'systemic.'
This argument is multiply-flawed. But if you read this weblog, that very fact is evidence that you have the mental equipment to determine on your own where the flaws lie. Why do I have to do all the work?