Footnotes to Plato from the foothills of the Superstition Mountains

Successful Explanation Again

Returning once again to the article by Tomas Bogardus, with a 'hat tip' to him for writing it and to Malcolm Pollack for bring it to my attention, let us reconsider his  premise (2), about which I raised some questions in earlier posts:

2. Any explanation can be successful only if it crucially involves no element that calls out for explanation but lacks one.

I suggested earlier that an explanation might count as successful even if it does contain one or more unexplained elements. Suppose a man is found dead. Why did he die? What was the salient cause of his death? (I  assume a distinction between a salient cause and circumambient causal factors.)* Did the man die from stroke, heart attack, gunshot, smoke inhalation while asleep?  Suppose the latter.  Why was there smoke in his bedroom? Because his house caught on fire. Why did it catch on fire? Because the house was hit by lightning. 

My question: Couldn't a successful explanation of the man's death stop right here? If we were to stop here would we not have achieved sufficient understanding of the man's death for practical purposes (purposes of ordinary life and the law). We would know why the man died and we would be able to rule out foul play. We would know that he did not die from ill health, suicide, or from such foolish behavior as smoking in bed. Bear in mind that the topic here is explanation, not causation, even in this case in which the explanation is a causal explanation.  

If I understand (2), it implies a negative answer to my question.  (2) seem to be telling us that one cannot provide a successful causal explanation of  any particular empirical fact unless (i) it is possible in principle to explain every temporally antecedent salient event and causal factor in the series of events  and factors culminating in the fact to be explained (the man's death in the example) subject to the proviso  that (ii) the explanation cannot 'bottom out' in brute  or unexplainable facts.

This amounts to saying that to explain successfully  any contingent thing or event it must be possible in principle — logically possible — to explain every contingent thing or event in the causal ancestry of the thing or event to be explained.  I say 'possible in principle' because no finite person has the ability to explain every thing or event in the causal ancestry of the thing or event to be explained.

In endnote 18 of his paper, Bogardus entertains something like my  objection  to his (2) and makes a reply:

Or suppose a meal appears before you, from nothing, with no explanation. You eat it, satisfying your hunger. Surely, you can now successfully explain your satiety by reference to the meal you ate, even if that meal itself has no explanation, yet calls out for one. [. . .]

Response: I deny that I would have a successful explanation of . . . the satiety.

The problem with this response is that I could not know that the meal appeared ex nihilo, and thus without a cause. If I were seated at table and a meal were suddenly to pop into existence before me, I would lose my appetite from fear! (No appetite, no sating thereof.) I would very reasonably believe that I was either hallucinating or losing my mind or that a preternatural event had occurred from a preternatural cause, and that either angelic or demonic  or divine or some other kind of paranormal agency was involved.  I would have no good reason to think that the meal sprang into existence out of nothing without cause.  The counterexample works only if I know or reasonably believe that the meal sprang into existence ex nihilo without cause.  But I do not know or reasonably believe that.  So how does the magic meal show that a successful explanation must regress back to an unexplained explainer? How does it show that there cannot be brute facts?  I do not see that TB's  response to my dead man  counterexample to (2) 'cuts the mustard' — to remain with the prandial theme.

______________

*For example, the salient cause of a forest fire is not the presence of oxygen in the atmosphere, which is merely a causal factor without which the fire could not have occurred.    A salient proximate cause might be lightning, the actions of an arsonist. or the carelessness of a camper who did not properly douse his campfire.)


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5 responses to “Successful Explanation Again”

  1. T Bogardus Avatar

    Dear Dr. Vallicella,
    Thanks very much for your further thought on this, and for writing up your response.
    You’re right that my endnote 18 was meant to respond to cases like the one you present, having to do with a house fire. After you share an excerpt from that endnote of mine, you say: “The counterexample works only if I know or reasonably believe that the meal sprang into existence ex nihilo without cause. But I do not know or reasonably believe that.”
    To recap the dialectic, the magic meal case was meant to be a counterexample to premise 2 in my main argument:
    2. Any explanation can be successful only if it crucially involves no element that calls out for explanation but lacks one.
    The magic meal case was meant to be a case in which a phenomenon is explained, and yet the explainer is itself unexplained. In response, to repeat, you said, “The counterexample works only if I know or reasonably believe that the meal sprang into existence ex nihilo without cause. But I do not know or reasonably believe that.” Now, do you mean to say that this magic meal counterexample doesn’t work? That it doesn’t refute premise 2 of my main argument? If so, I’m happy to agree! My aim was to defend premise 2 from a counterexample that several auditors raised.
    But I can’t really see how the counterexample requires you to know or reasonably believe that the meal sprang into existence ex nihilo. Perhaps we can sidestep these psychological questions by just considering the magic meal appearing to someone else, without his knowledge. Call him “Mac.” Mac is hungry. He walks into a room and sees a meal before him. He eats it. He’s sated. Do we have an explanation of his satiety? I admit it’s tempting to answer ‘yes’! But, as I say in the paper, I believe the true answer is: it depends.
    In case your readers would like ready access to that endnote in its entirety, here it is:
    ————-
    Objection: Suppose a full-grown, pregnant mare appears before you, from nothing, with literally no explanation. The mare foals a colt. Surely, you can successfully explain the origin of the colt in terms of the pregnant mare, even if the pregnant mare herself has no explanation, yet calls out for one. This is a counterexample to premise 2. Or suppose a meal appears before you, from nothing, with no explanation. You eat it, satisfying your hunger. Surely, you can now successfully explain your satiety by reference to the meal you ate, even if that meal itself has no explanation, yet calls out for one. This is another counterexample.
    Response: I deny that I would have a successful explanation of the colt or of the satiety. Recall the link between explanation and understanding. A successful explanation can produce in us understanding of the phenomenon, an understanding of why or how it’s happening. But if there’s part of a proposed explanation that cannot be understood, because it’s brute – how can it produce in us understanding of why or how the phenomenon is happening? Yet if it cannot produce in us that understanding, then it isn’t a successful explanation. In each of these cases, there is a part of the proposed explanation that cannot be understood – in the first, the mare, in the second, the meal – and, so, in neither case do we have a successful explanation. To put it another way, to understand why (or how) is to understand an acceptable answer to the relevant ‘Why?’ (or ‘How?’) question. But if part of that answer is unintelligible, unable to be understood, totally mysterious, then one cannot understand the answer. And, in that case, one cannot understand why (or how) the phenomenon is happening. But, if so, then these answers cannot be successful explanations. In that case, they are not counterexamples to premise 2, despite appearances.
    But why do they appear to be counterexamples? I believe these cases are attractive because they feature explanans that are of types with which we’re very familiar, and we’re tempted to assimilate these cases to our background knowledge and experience of similar cases. We’re familiar with eating, and we’re familiar with birth. In ordinary cases of explanation – including cases of eating, and cases of birth – we tend to cut short our explanations, with an implicit ‘and so on’ clause. Why am I at this very moment satiated? I just ate quinoa and salmon. It’s presupposed, in the vast majority of conversational contexts, that such a meal would have an ordinary provenance, and so, for convenience and efficiency, the explicit explanation ends there. ‘And so on, in an ordinary way’, we tacitly assume. My suggestion is that we mistakenly carry this habit with us when considering the proposed cases above. When we hear the colt came from the mare, we’re inclined to think this is a sufficient explanation, because in ordinary cases, where ordinary presuppositions are met, it would be. Ordinarily, we could perfectly well understand a pregnant mare, or a meal on a table before us. But these are not ordinary cases. They feature explanans that are brute, that literally have no explanation, and that, therefore, cannot be understood. These unintelligible explanans create, as it were, mysterious gaps, or holes, in their respective proposed explanations, gaps that our minds are disposed to fill in so as to resemble ordinary cases, just as our minds fill in the blind spots in our visual fields, created by our optic nerves. But make this unintelligibility more explicit, more salient, and the temptation to think we have a successful explanation diminishes. For example, a high-velocity brick appears out of nowhere, for no reason, and flies through a window: do we really understand why the window is broken? I don’t think so. A falling domino materializes from nowhere, for no reason, and knocks over a second domino. Do we really understand why that second domino fell? Again, I don’t think so. A world where things like this happened regularly would be a mysterious world, a regularly inexplicable world. But this is the sort of thing that is happening with the mare and the meal. And, so, as I said above, these are not cases of successful explanation, and therefore not counterexamples.

  2. Malcolm Pollack Avatar

    Hi Bill,
    I think that the issue here is that Naturalism, or at least what we might call “positive” or “strong” Naturalism, doesn’t simply express agnosticism about the supernatural; it actively asserts that the spacetime system, and the physical world, are exhaustive of reality.
    If that’s metaphysically true, then Naturalism gathers within itself every explanation that is possible in principle, and lays claim to complete ontological (and not just “good enough”) explanation of all phenomena. If it can’t do that with some self-explaining way of grounding its stacks of turtles (which Bogardus argues, I think rightly, that it can’t), then it’s going to have to rely on brute facts (which an honest Naturalism ought to be willing to fess up to).
    So: if all you’re looking for is a brief account of whether a man died from gunshot, a stroke, or a fire, then yes, finding his body in a charred house that had been struck by lightning probably closes the case. But I think Bogardus sees a classic “motte-and-bailey” game going on here, in which Naturalism, when speaking in vague and general terms, seeks to reject and deny transcendent metaphysics and pretend that it has all the answers (the bailey) but when pressed for specifics can just say that its truncated explanations for particular phenomena are “sufficient” (the motte).

  3. BV Avatar
    BV

    Malcolm,
    I agree with your first and second paragraphs.
    But you appear to be ignoring the distinctions I made between explanation and causation; between personal and impersonal explanation; and between successful and unsuccessful personal explanations, on the one hand, and complete and incomplete impersonal explanations, on the other.
    I think we do agree, however, that if an impersonal causal explanation of the present state of the universe in terms of earlier states and the laws of nature terminates (‘bottoms out’ or ‘tops out’ to invert the metaphor) in a brute event such as the Big Bang, then our desire for complete understanding will remain unsatisfied.
    Can you prove that our desire for complete understanding must be satisfiable? How would you go about proving that? Isn’t there a logical gap between “We desire complete understanding” and “Complete understanding is to be had”? How do you get from the first proposition to the second?
    Can you prove that there cannot be any brute facts/events? Can you prove that there must be a Agent-Cause that freely brought onto existence the first even, the Big Bang?
    Finally, I note that you ignored my rebuttal of TB’s ‘magic meal’ argument.
    I stand by what I said about successful PERSONAL explanations. You should review my definitions.

  4. Malcolm Pollack Avatar

    Bill,
    I feel a tad misread here.

    “Can you prove that our desire for complete understanding must be satisfiable? How would you go about proving that? Isn’t there a logical gap between “We desire complete understanding” and “Complete understanding is to be had”? How do you get from the first proposition to the second?”

    No, I can’t prove that, and I wasn’t assuming its truth. (Nor, I think, is Bogardus.) Even if such plenary understanding is possible in principle, the conceit that our minds are subtle or capacious enough for the job is almost certainly mistaken. And I did acknowledge, in my comment on your previous entry, the distinction between an impersonal explanation that fails because its “conjuncts numerically overwhelm our finite minds” and one that fails “because at least one of its most important conjuncts bottoms out swiftly, and in plain sight, on some proposition that calls out for explanation and hasn’t got one”.

    “Can you prove that there cannot be any brute facts/events? Can you prove that there must be a Agent-Cause that freely brought onto existence the first even, the Big Bang?”

    Again, no — but I wasn’t trying to. I don’t deny the possibility that all of existence rests ultimately upon brute facts; indeed, it may even be a brute fact that all of existence just popped into being a moment ago, including your previous entries on this topic, and our memories of having discussed it at some length already! But I do share Bogardus’s intuition that such a brute fact (especially that latter example) wouldn’t really “explain” anything, at least not in the sense that we want when we talk about explanations. You yourself have said that you “reject” brute facts, which makes me think that you share this intuition yourself. (Are there good reasons for us to hold this opinion, or is our rejection of brute facts itself just a brute fact?)
    As for Bogardus’s mysterious-meal argument, it’s perhaps too blunt of a reductio to be persuasive: as you say, if it were to happen as described, it would be so shocking as to ruin one’s appetite! But although sneaking in the brute facts farther down the stack of turtles makes no difference in terms of Bogardus’s argument, it might make all the difference as far as Naturalism being able to pose as a complete metaphysics without having the brute facts sticking out so obviously that they ruin its curb appeal.
    So: the purpose of my comment above is that, as I read Bogardus, he isn’t saying that it isn’t possible for reality to rest on brute facts. What he’s saying, I think, is a) that for Naturalism to pose as an exhaustive and (in principle) fully explanatory metaphysics without acknowledging its reliance either on infinite regress or brute fact has “all the advantages of theft over honest toil”, and b) that there is in fact another, arguably more parsimonious, model on offer that avoids these difficulties.

  5. BV Avatar
    BV

    TB,
    Thanks for the discussion, but it is time to call a halt. As I see it,
    your (2) is ambiguous as between
    2a) Any personal explanation can be successful only if it crucially involves no element that calls out for explanation but lacks one
    and
    2b) Any impersonal explanation can be complete only if it crucially involves no element that calls out for explanation but lacks one.
    It seems to me that (2a) is false, whereas (2b) is true. (2a) is false because I can stop explaining right after citing the lightning strike. I do not need to explain that lightning is an atmospheric electrical discharge, caused by electrostatic activity occurring between two electrically charged regions, etc. Same with the other example I gave. Kid asks, “Why did the crops fail, Grandpa?” Old man replies, “Because of the drought.” The kid’s desire to understand has been satisfied, and so the personal explanation is successful without being complete. There is no need to regress further although one could, and in some contexts should.
    As I see it, you are conflating personal with impersonal explanations and successful with complete explanations. But perhaps you don’t accept these distinctions.
    In any case, you are doing some very good work as I can see from your PhilPeople page. I need to read your articles on sex/gender. Best wishes.
    https://philpeople.org/profiles/tomas-bogardus

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