The Ostrich inquires,
You hold that [instances of] both (1) and (2) below are true.
(1) X is no longer temporally present and (2) X exists tenselessly.
Fair enough. But what does ‘exist tenselessly’ mean?
To exist tenselessly is just to exist. To exist is to be something. More precisely, it is to be identical to something or other:
Q. Necessarily, for any x, x exists iff for some y, y = x.
For example,
a. Quine exists iff Quine = Quine.
Now is (a) true at all times, or only at some times? At all times. For at no time is Quine self-diverse. This commits me to the affirmation of permanentism and the denial of transientism:
P. It is always the case that everything in time exists at every time.
T. Sometimes something begins to exist, and sometimes something ceases to exist.
Now if nothing begins to exist and nothing ceases to exist, then the A-determinations (pastness, presentness, and futurity) are purely temporal and not at all existential. This is why, from
b. The Berlin Wall is no longer present
one cannot validly infer
c. The Berlin Wall does not exist.
Although nothing begins to exist and nothing ceases to exist, some items begin to be temporally present and some items cease to be temporally present.
Now presentism includes transientism. Having rejected transientism, I must also reject presentism, the view that it is always the case that whatever exists exists at present.
Is it a substantive metaphysical question whether permanentism or presentism is true? I should think that it is. It is a question about the nature of existence: Is existence time-independent or not?
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