{"id":3174,"date":"2026-05-28T11:57:42","date_gmt":"2026-05-28T18:57:42","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/?p=3174"},"modified":"2026-05-28T11:59:56","modified_gmt":"2026-05-28T18:59:56","slug":"ostrich-presentism-20","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/2026\/05\/28\/ostrich-presentism-20\/","title":{"rendered":"Against Ostrich Presentism and Problem-Blindness"},"content":{"rendered":"<div class=\"entry-body\">\n<p><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">I agree with the following remark in Ludwig Wittgenstein&#8217;s <em>Zettel.<\/em>\u00a0<\/span><\/p>\n<blockquote>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">456. Some philosophers (or whatever you like to call them) suffer from what may be called &#8220;loss of problems.&#8221; (<em>Problemverlust<\/em>) Then everything seems quite simple to them, no deep problems seem to exist any more, the world become broad and flat and loses all depth, and what they write becomes immeasurably shallow and trivial. Russell and H. G. Wells suffer from this.<\/span><\/p>\n<\/blockquote>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">I prefer to say that some philosophers are problem-blind. It is not as if they have lost the problems; they never found them. They are like unto the ostrich with his head in the sand.<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">Here is a problem, or rather a question, that seems to me genuine and &#8216;deep.&#8217;\u00a0 It has to do with the relation of time and existence. Do only temporally present items exist, or do wholly past and wholly future items also exist?\u00a0 For this to be a substantive question of metaphysics, &#8216;exist&#8217; in both of its occurrences in the preceding sentence cannot be in the present tense. If they were, &#8216;Only present items exist&#8217; would be logically true and &#8216;Past and present and future items all exist&#8217; would be logically false.\u00a0 For it is logically true that only present items exist at present, and logically false that past, present, and future items all exist at present, given that &#8216;past&#8217; and &#8216;future&#8217; mean <em>wholly non-present<\/em>.\u00a0<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">So there have to be two senses of &#8216;exist(s)&#8217; in play for our question to make sense.\u00a0 The question, again, is this: Do only temporally present items exist, or do wholly past and wholly future items also exist? Well, maybe the question just doesn&#8217;t make sense.\u00a0 This seems to be the Ostrich&#8217;s view. He seems to think that logical as opposed to metaphysical presentism is the only game in town: &#8216;Only the present exists&#8217; is susceptible of only one reading, the logical reading, whereas I think it is susceptible of two readings, the logical one and a metaphysical one.\u00a0 In one of his earlier comments, the Ostrich (Edward Buckner) writes:<\/span><\/p>\n<blockquote>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\"> He [the logical presentist] is putting forward not a substantive metaphysical thesis, but rather a substantive thesis about language, a thesis about the meaning of \u2018exists\u2019 and \u2018at present\u2019.<\/span><\/p>\n<\/blockquote>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">The thesis, I take it, is that &#8216;exists&#8217; can <em>only<\/em> be used correctly in the present-tensed way.\u00a0 But if so, &#8216;Boethius exists&#8217; when used to convey that Boethius is neither fictional nor merely possible, but an actual albeit no longer present person, is nonsense.\u00a0 In other words, &#8216;exists&#8217; has no correct tenseless use. It seems to me, however, that &#8216;exist(s)&#8217; does have correct tenseless uses.\u00a0 It has correct tenseless uses when we are talking about timeless entities (if such there be) but also when we are talking about items in time.<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">Many philosophers have maintained that there are timeless entities. If so, then &#8216;exists&#8217; can be used both tenselessly and correctly.\u00a0 Suppose I tell you that a prime number greater than 3 and less than 7 exists. It would be a bad joke were you to reply, Yogi Berra style, &#8220;You mean <em>now<\/em>?&#8221; But I expect the Ostrich will have no truck with the timeless.\u00a0 For the Ostrich is as much a nominalist as he is a logical presentist. But even if he were to countenance so-called abstract objects, he could restrict his logical presentism to temporalia. His claim would then presumably be that &#8216;exists&#8217; has no correct tenseless or time-independent use in respect of any temporal item such as Boethius.\u00a0<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">He might tell us\u00a0 that Boethius exists in that he either existed or exists or will exist, where each disjunct is tensed.\u00a0 The disjunction is true because the first disjunct is true, and because it suffices for a disjunction to be true that one of its disjuncts be true.\u00a0 \u00a0The Ostrich could say, reasonably, that the disjunctively omnitemporal use of &#8216;exist(s)&#8217; is not genuinely tenseless since it is parasitic upon tensed expressions.<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">The Ostrich bids us consider <\/span><\/p>\n<blockquote>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">. . . the question of whether a thing could exist without existing in the present. The logical presentist might then question what is meant by \u2018no longer exists\u2019. The natural interpretation is \u2018existed, but does not exist\u2019. But then the thing doesn\u2019t exist, period. <\/span><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">Using tensed language we can say, truly, that Boethius existed, but does not exist.\u00a0 Why not be satisfied with this?\u00a0\u00a0<\/span><\/p>\n<\/blockquote>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">Well, if Boethius does not exist, period, what is the difference in reality between his never having existed and his having existed? Those are plainly different. What is the difference between a purely fictional individual and a past non-fictional\u00a0 individual? And what is the difference between a merely possible individual and and a past actual individual? Boethius is factual, not fictional; actual, not merely possible.\u00a0 He is a wholly past factual and actual individual. Historians are students of the past.\u00a0 They study facts, not fictions; actualities not mere possibilities.\u00a0 One could accommodate these obvious differences by holding that &#8216;exist(s)&#8217; can be used correctly in two ways, the present-tensed way and in a way that expresses existence simpliciter.\u00a0 To ask whether cats that swim exist, is not to ask whether they exist now. It is to ask whether they exist somewhere in the world at some time. It is to ask whether they simply exist, i.e., belong to the &#8220;furniture of the world.&#8221; To ask whether God exists is not to presuppose that if he exists, then he exists now. For the question whether God exists leaves open whether he exists at every time, at no time, at some but not all times, or entirely outside of time.\u00a0<\/span><\/p>\n<p>My claim is that there is a clear difference between &#8216;exist(s)&#8217; used in the present-tensed way and &#8216;exist(s)&#8217; used to express existence period, i.e., existence <em>simpliciter<\/em>.<\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">If the Ostrich is right, and what no longer exists does not exist period, then the passage of time has annihilated the item in question.\u00a0 Of course, we both agree that Scollay Square no longer exists, and that it is now nothing.\u00a0 \u00a0We also agree that it would be false to say that Scollay Square still exists.\u00a0 But of course that is not what I mean when I say that it exists simpliciter. What I mean is that it is (tenselessly) part of the furniture of the world. What I deny, and what the Ostrich seems to affirm, is that the passage of time has annihilated the locale in question.<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">The past-tensed &#8216;Boethius existed&#8217; is true. It is true now. What makes it true? Surely not Boethius! The Ostrich will presumably say that nothing makes it true, and there is no need for anything to make it true; it is just true!\u00a0 I expect the Ostrich to adopt A. N. Prior&#8217;s redundancy theory of the present according to which everything that is presently true is simply true. (Cf. Craig Bourne, <strong>A Future for Presentism<\/strong>, Oxford UP,\u00a0 2006, 42 f.)\u00a0 Just as &#8216;It is true that ____&#8217; is redundant. &#8216;It is now the case that ___&#8217; is redundant.<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">For Prior, all tensed sentences are present-tensed.\u00a0 Thus the past-tensed &#8216;Boethius existed&#8217; MEANS that it is now the case that Boethius existed.\u00a0 Given the redundancy of &#8216;It is now the case that ____,&#8217; we are left with &#8216;Boethius existed.&#8217;\u00a0 And that is all!\u00a0 There is no need or room for a metaphysics of time.\u00a0 There is nothing more to say about the nature of time than what is said in a perspicuous tense logic.<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">Thus the Ostrich. I am not satisfied. Past-tensed contingent truths need truth-makers.\u00a0 \u00a0&#8216;BV exists&#8217; is true. It can&#8217;t just be true. It needs a truth-maker.\u00a0 A plausible candidate is the 175 lb. animal who wears my clothes. &#8216;BV exists&#8217; is true because BV exists.\u00a0 Now it will be the case that BV no longer exists. When that time comes, &#8216;BV existed&#8217; will be true. I conclude that if &#8216;BV exists&#8217; needs a truth-maker, then so will &#8216;BV existed.&#8217;<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">As with BV, so with Boethius.<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia, palatino; font-size: 13pt;\">If &#8216;Boethius existed&#8217; needs a truth-maker, and nothing at present can serve as truth-maker, then the pressure is on to resist the Ostrich thesis that &#8216;exists&#8217; can only be correctly used in the present-tensed way.<\/span><\/p>\n<p>The Ostrich, however, does not see the problem. Because he does not see the problem, I pronounce him &#8216;problem-blind.&#8217; (Re-read the Wittgenstein quotation above.)<\/p>\n<\/div>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"<p>I agree with the following remark in Ludwig Wittgenstein&#8217;s Zettel.\u00a0 456. Some philosophers (or whatever you like to call them) suffer from what may be called &#8220;loss of problems.&#8221; (Problemverlust) Then everything seems quite simple to them, no deep problems seem to exist any more, the world become broad and flat and loses all depth, &hellip; <a href=\"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/2026\/05\/28\/ostrich-presentism-20\/\" class=\"more-link\">Continue reading<span class=\"screen-reader-text\"> &#8220;Against Ostrich Presentism and Problem-Blindness&#8221;<\/span><\/a><\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":2,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":{"footnotes":""},"categories":[142,204,257,90],"tags":[],"class_list":["post-3174","post","type-post","status-publish","format-standard","hentry","category-existence","category-time-and-change","category-time-and-eternity","category-truthmakers"],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/3174","targetHints":{"allow":["GET"]}}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/2"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=3174"}],"version-history":[{"count":8,"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/3174\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":14136,"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/3174\/revisions\/14136"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=3174"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=3174"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=3174"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}