{"id":10739,"date":"2011-04-27T16:05:02","date_gmt":"2011-04-27T16:05:02","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/2011\/04\/27\/god-and-allah-same-god\/"},"modified":"2011-04-27T16:05:02","modified_gmt":"2011-04-27T16:05:02","slug":"god-and-allah-same-god","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/2011\/04\/27\/god-and-allah-same-god\/","title":{"rendered":"The God of Christianity and the God of Islam:  Same God?"},"content":{"rendered":"<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">One morning an irate C-Span viewer called in to say that he prayed to the living God, not to the mythical being, Allah, to whom Muslims pray. The C-Span guest made a standard response, which is correct as far as it goes, namely, that&#0160;<em>Allah<\/em> is Arabic for God, just as <em>Gott<\/em> is German for God. He suggested that adherents of the three Abrahamic religions (Judaism, Christianity, Islam) worship the same God under different names. No doubt this is a politically correct thing to say, but is it true?<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">Our question, then, is precisely this:&#0160; <strong>Does the normative Christian and the normative Muslim worship numerically the same God, or numerically different Gods?&#0160;<\/strong> (By &#39;normative Christian\/Muslim&#39; I mean an orthodox adherent of his faith who understands its content, without subtraction and without addition of private opinions.)&#0160; Islam and Christianity are both monotheistic.&#0160; So if Christian and Muslim worship different Gods, then one is worshipping&#0160; a nonexistent God, or, if you prefer, is failing to worship the true God.<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">1. Let&#39;s start with the obvious: &#39;Allah&#39; is Arabic for God.&#0160; So if an Arabic-speaking Coptic Christian refers to God, he uses &#39;Allah.&#39;&#0160;&#0160; And if an Arabic-speaking Muslim refers to God, he too uses &#39;Allah.&#39;&#0160; From the fact that both Copt and Muslim use &#39;Allah&#39; it does not follow that they are referring to the same God, but it also does not follow that they are referring to numerically different Gods.&#0160;&#0160;So we will not make any progress with our question if we remain at the level of words.&#0160; We must advance to concepts.<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">2. We need to distinguish between the word for God, the concept (conception) of God, and God.&#0160; God&#0160;is not a concept, but there are concepts of God and, apart from mystical intuition, we have no access to God except via our concepts of God.&#0160; Now it is undeniable that the Christian and Muslim conceptions of God partially overlap.&#0160; The following is a partial list of what is common to both conceptions:<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">a. There is exactly one God.<\/span><br \/><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">b.&#0160; God is the creator of everything distinct from himself.<\/span><br \/><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">c.&#0160; God is transcendent: he is radically different from everthing distinct from himself.<\/span><br \/><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">d. God is good.<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">Now if the Christian and Muslim conceptions of God were identical, then we would have no reason to think that Christian and Muslim worship different Gods.&#0160; But of course the conceptions, despite partial overlap,&#0160;are not identical. Christians believe in a triune God who became man in Jesus of Nazareth.&#0160; Or to put it precisely, they believe in a triune God the second person of which became man in Jesus of Nazareth.&#0160; This is the central and indeed <em>crucial<\/em> (from the Latin, <em>crux, crucis<\/em>, meaning cross) difference between the two faiths.&#0160; The crux of the matter is the cross.&#0160; <\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">3. Now comes the hard part, which is to choose between two competing views:<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\"><em>V1: Christian and Muslim worship the same God, but one of them has a false belief about God,&#0160;whether it be the belief that God is unitarian or the&#0160;belief that God is trinitarian.<\/em><\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\"><em>V2:&#0160; Christian and Muslim worship different Gods precisely because they have different conceptions of God.&#0160; So it is not that one of them has a false belief about the one God they both worship; it is rather that one of them does not worship the true God at all.<\/em><\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">There is no easy way to decide rationally between these two views.&#0160; We have to delve into the philosophy of language and ask how reference is achieved.&#0160;&#0160;How do linguistic expressions attach or apply to extralinguistic entities? How do words grab onto the (extralinguistic) world? In particular, how <\/span><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">do nominal expressions work? What makes my utterance of &#39;Socrates&#39; denote Socrates rather than someone or something else?&#0160; What makes my use of &#39;God&#39; (i) have a referent at all and (ii) have the precise referent it has?<\/span><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">4.&#0160; It is reasonable to hold, with Frege, Russell, and many others, that reference is routed through, and determined by, sense: an expression picks out its object in virtue of the latter&#39;s satisfaction of a<\/span><br \/><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">description associated with the referring expression, a description that unpacks the expression&#39;s sense. If we think of reference in this way, then &#39;God&#39; refers to whatever entity, if any, that satisfies the definite description encapsulated in &#39;God&#39; as this term is used in a given linguistic community.<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">Given that God is not an actual or possible object of (sense) experience, this seems like a reasonable approach to take.&#0160; The idea is that &#39;God&#39; is a definite description in disguise so that &#39;God&#39; refers to whichever entity satisfies the description associated wth &#39;God.&#39;&#0160; &#0160; Now consider two candidate definite descriptions, the first corresponding to the Mulsim conception, the second corresponding to the Christian.<\/span><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">D1: &#39;the unique x such that x is omnipotent, omniscient, omnibenevolent, created the world ex nihilo and is unitarian&#39;<\/span><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">D2: &#39;the unique x such that x is omnipotent, omniscient, omnibenevolent, created the world ex nihilo, and is triune.&#39;<\/span><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">Suppose that reference is not direct, but routed through sense, or mediated by a description, in the manner explained above.&#0160;&#0160; It is easy to see that no one entity can satisfy both (D1) and (D2).&#0160; So if reference is routed through sense, then Christian and Muslim cannot be referring to the same being.&#0160; Indeed, one of them is not succeeding in referring at all.&#0160; For if God is triune, nothing in reality answers tothe Muslim&#39;s conception of God.&#0160; And if God is unitarian, then nothing in reality answers to the Christian conception.<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">And so, contrary to what Miroslav Volf maintains, the four points of commonality in the Christian and Muslim conceptions listed above do NOT &quot;establish the claim that in their worship of God, Muslims and Christians refer to the same object.&quot; (<strong>Allah: A Christian Response<\/strong>, HarperCollins 2011, p. 110.)&#0160; For if reference to God is mediated by a conception which includes the subconcept triune or unitarian, the reference cannot be to the same entity.<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">A mundane example (adapted from Kripke) will make this more clear.&#0160; Sally sees a handsome man at a party standing in the corner drinking a clear bubbly liquid from a cocktail glass.&#0160; She turns to her companion Nancy and says, &quot;The man standing in the corner drinking champagne is handsome!&quot;&#0160; Suppose the man is not drinking champagne, but sparkling water instead.&#0160; Has Sally succeeded in referring to the man or not?&#0160; Argumentative Nancy,&#0160; who knows that no alcohol is being served at the party, and who also finds the man handsome, says, &quot;You are not referring to anything: there is no man in the corner drinking champagne.&#0160; The man is drinking sparkling water.&#0160; Nothing satisfies your definite description.&#0160; There is no one man we both admire.&#0160; &#0160;Your handsome man does not exist, but mine does.&quot;&#0160;<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">Now in this example what we would intuitively say is that Sally did succeed in referring to someone using a definite description even though the object she succeeded in referring to does not satisfy the description.&#0160; Intuitively, we would say that Sally simply has a false belief about the object to which she is successfully referring, and that Sally and Nancy are referring to and admiring the very same man.<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">But note how this case differs from the God case.&#0160; Both women see the man in the corner.&#0160; But God is not an object of possible (sense) experience, of Kant&#39;s <em>moegliche Erfarhung<\/em>.&#0160; Hence the reference of &#39;God&#39; cannot be nailed down perceptually.&#0160; And so it seems that what we succeed in referring to is&#0160;whatever satisfies the definite description that unpacks our conception of God.<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">5.&#0160; My tentative conclusion, then, is that (i) if we accept a description theory of names, the Christian and Muslim do not refer to the same being when they use &#39;God&#39; or &#39;Allah&#39;&#0160; and (ii) that a description theory of names is&#0160;what we must invoke given the nonperceivability of God.<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">If, on the other hand, &#39;God&#39; is a logically proper name whose&#0160;&#0160; meaning is exhausted by its reference, a Kripkean rigid designator,&#0160; rather than a Russellian definite description in disguise, then what would make &#39;God&#39; or a particular use of &#39;God&#39; refer to God?<\/span><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">A particular use is presumably caused by an earlier use. But eventually there must be an initial use. Imagine&#0160;Moses on Mt. Sinai. He has a profound mystical experience of a being who conveys to his<\/span><br \/><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">mind such locutions as &quot;I am the Lord thy God; thou shalt not have false gods before me.&quot;&#0160;Moses applies &#39;God&#39; or &#39;Yahweh&#39; to the being. But what makes the name the name of the being? One may say: the fact <\/span><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">that the being or an effect of the being causes the use of the name.&#0160; <\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">But a certain indeterminacy seems to creep in if we think of the semantic relation of referring as explicable in terms of causation. For is it the (mystical)&#0160;experience of God that causes the use of &#39;God&#39;? Or is it God himself who causes the use of &#39;God&#39;? If the former, then &#39;God&#39; refers to an experience had by&#0160;Moses and not to God. Surely God is not an experience. But how can God be the cause of&#0160;Moses&#39; use of &#39;God&#39;? Causes are events, God is not an event, so God cannot be a cause.<\/span><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">If these difficulties could be ironed out and a causal theory of names is tenable, and if the causal chain extends from Moses down to Christians and (later)to Muslims, then a case could be made that Jews, Christians, and Muslims are all referring to the same God when they use &#39;God&#39; and such equivalents as &#39;Yahweh&#39; and &#39;Allah.&#39;<\/span><\/p>\n<p style=\"text-align: justify;\"><span style=\"font-family: georgia,palatino;\">So it looks like there is no easy answer to the opening question.&#0160; It depends on the resolution of intricate questions in the philosophy of language.&#0160; <\/span><\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"<p>One morning an irate C-Span viewer called in to say that he prayed to the living God, not to the mythical being, Allah, to whom Muslims pray. The C-Span guest made a standard response, which is correct as far as it goes, namely, that&#0160;Allah is Arabic for God, just as Gott is German for God. &hellip; <a href=\"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/2011\/04\/27\/god-and-allah-same-god\/\" class=\"more-link\">Continue reading<span class=\"screen-reader-text\"> &#8220;The God of Christianity and the God of Islam:  Same God?&#8221;<\/span><\/a><\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":2,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"open","ping_status":"open","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":{"footnotes":""},"categories":[58,143,408],"tags":[],"class_list":["post-10739","post","type-post","status-publish","format-standard","hentry","category-christian-doctrine","category-god","category-language-philosophy-of"],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/10739","targetHints":{"allow":["GET"]}}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/2"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=10739"}],"version-history":[{"count":0,"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/10739\/revisions"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=10739"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=10739"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/maverickphilosopher.blog\/index.php\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=10739"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}